Proof that sum_(k=0)^(N-1) cos((2pi)/N (k+1/2))=0

ajakanvao

ajakanvao

Answered question

2022-11-08

Proof that k = 0 N 1 cos ( 2 π N ( k + 1 2 ) ) = 0
and I happened to notice that it equals 0 for all integer values of N > 1. This it very easy to prove for N even, by noticing some symmetries in the angles that appear in the arguments of the cosines. This does not work for N odd. When trying to prove it for N odd, I split it as
k = 0 N 1 cos ( 2 π N ( k + 1 2 ) ) = cos ( π N ) k = 0 N 1 cos ( 2 π N k ) sin ( π N ) k = 0 N 1 sin ( 2 π N k )
and noticed (by checking it numerically) that the two terms are individually 0 for all integer N>1
k = 0 N 1 cos ( 2 π N k ) = 0 = k = 0 N 1 sin ( 2 π N k ) .
From here I don't know to proceed.

Answer & Explanation

Kailee Abbott

Kailee Abbott

Beginner2022-11-09Added 14 answers

Hint
You face sums of sines and cosines of angles in arithmetic progression
k = 0 N p cos ( 2 π N k ) = 1 2 ( 1 + csc ( π N ) sin ( π 2 π p N ) )
k = 0 N p sin ( 2 π N k ) = 1 2 csc ( π N ) ( cos ( π ( N + 1 2 p ) N ) + cos ( π N ) )

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?