How do you solve cos(3x)=cos(x)?

Demarion Ortega

Demarion Ortega

Answered question

2022-11-07

How do you solve cos ( 3 x ) = cos ( x )?
I have tried to rewrite it to 4cos3(x)−3cos(x)=cos(x) and then solve it. Add 3cos(x) to both sides and then divide by 4. And then I have this: cos3(x)=cos(x) . I don’t know what so do now or even if on the right track.

Answer & Explanation

merlatas497

merlatas497

Beginner2022-11-08Added 14 answers

As an alternative (and cleaner) solution, you can note that two angles θ , θ have the same cosine if and only if θ θ ( mod 2 π ) or θ θ ( mod 2 π ). In your case, you thus have:
cos ( 3 x ) = cos ( x ) 3 x x ( mod 2 π ) ,  or  3 x x ( mod 2 π ) 2 x 0 ( mod 2 π ) ,  or  4 x 0 ( mod 2 π ) x 0 ( mod π ) ,  or  x 0 ( mod π / 2 ) x 0 ( mod π / 2 )
where, for the last equivalence, we use that if x = k π for some integer k, then of course x = 2 k ( π / 2 ). So in the end, your solution set is:
S = { k π 2 k Z } .
clealtAfforcewug

clealtAfforcewug

Beginner2022-11-09Added 4 answers

You are on the right track. Start with
cos 3 x = cos x
Substituting, cos 3 x = 4 cos 3 x 3 cos x, you get
4 cos 3 x 3 cos x = cos x
Thus,
cos 3 x cos x = 0
We can write this as
cos x ( cos 2 x 1 ) = 0
By factoring the difference of two squares we get,
cos x ( cos x + 1 ) ( cos x 1 ) = 0
As we expected this equation has 3 factors and hence three solutions
Set each factor equal to 0 and solve using unit circle, here n is a natural number.
cos x = 0 which is satisfied for values, x = ± ( 2 n 1 ) π 2
cos x + 1 = 0, thus cos x = 1 which is satisfied for values, x = n π
cos x 1 = 0, thus cos x = 1 which is satisfied for values x = 0 , 2 n π

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