Expert answers to "Would a right triangle with bases a=i and..."

Cory Patrick

Answered question

2022-06-12

Would a right triangle with bases a=i and b=1 have hypotenuse c=0?

britspears523jp

Beginner2022-06-13Added 28 answers

i

is an imaginary number

i = \sqrt{- 1}

Such a right triangle with legs

a = i, b = 1

doesn't exist.
because side of right triangle can't be imaginary i.e.

a \neq i

all the sides of an existing triangle must be positive real numbers.

hawatajwizp

Beginner2022-06-14Added 10 answers

It doesn't exist, because a triangle must be defined as having side lengths of positive real numbers (even

- 1

wouldn't count, let alone imaginary numbers).
If you are talking about the triangle formed by

0 \leq x \leq 1

, and

0 \leq y \leq i

on the Argand Diagram, that has side lengths of

1

and hypotenuse

\sqrt{2}

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