Let A, B & C sets, and left f:A->B and g:B->C be functions. Suppose that f and g have inverses. Prove that g∘f has an inverse, and that (g∘f)−1=f^−1∘g^−1.

nar6jetaime86

nar6jetaime86

Answered question

2022-09-12

Let A, B & C sets, and left f : A B and g : B C be functions. Suppose that f and g have inverses. Prove that g f has an inverse, and that ( g f ) 1 = f 1 g 1 .
Assuming that f and g have reverse, f 1 = h and g 1 = s with h : B A, s : C B.
from that above i infer that the inverse of ( g f ) is ( s g ) : C A that is g 1 f 1 = ( g f ) 1 ; Hence for proof of ( g f ) 1 = f 1 g 1 , proceed as before, only swapping functions, right?

Answer & Explanation

Cristian Delacruz

Cristian Delacruz

Beginner2022-09-13Added 13 answers

Here is the correct proof.
( g f ) ( f 1 g 1 ) = ( g ( f f 1 ) ) g 1 = ( g i d B ) g 1 = g g 1 = i d A
and
( f 1 g 1 ) ( g f ) =  same computations  = i d C
so ( f 1 g 1 ) and ( g f ) are inverses each other

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