Hy. Can someone please explain me how can I resolve int^infty_0 (e^(−(sI−A)t)dt) ? I must have the final result (sI−A)^(−1). I think it has the euler form, for beta integral but I don't know how can I get to that result.

charmbraqdy

charmbraqdy

Answered question

2022-11-08

Hy. Can someone please explain me how can I resolve 0 e ( s I A ) t d t ? I must have the final result ( s I A ) 1 . I think it has the euler form, for beta integral but I don't know how can I get to that result.

Answer & Explanation

Savion Chaney

Savion Chaney

Beginner2022-11-09Added 14 answers

If you wrote the integral correctly, just use the fact that
e k t = k 1 e k t + C
where, of course, k is a constant and C is an arbitrary constant. There is no need for a fancy integral such as the beta integral. Finding the definite integral from that is easy, since the limit is easy.

All this, of course, depends on s, I, and A being real or complex numbers.

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