How can we manipulate the expression sum_(i=1)^m (sum_(j=0)^n a_j x_(i)^j)^2 into sum_(i=0)^n sum_(k=0)^n a_ja_k sum_(i=1)^m x_(j)^(j+k)

Rubi Garner

Rubi Garner

Answered question

2022-10-23

How can we manipulate the expression
i = 1 m ( j = 0 n a j x i j ) 2
into
j = 0 n k = 0 n a j a k ( i = 1 m x i j + k )

Answer & Explanation

encaselatqr

encaselatqr

Beginner2022-10-24Added 11 answers

i = 1 m ( j = 0 n a j x i j ) 2
= i = 1 m j = 0 n k = 0 n a j x i j a k x i k
= j = 0 n k = 0 n a j a k ( i = 1 m x i j + k )
Reordering summation symbols in the last step is okay since these are finite sums

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

New Questions in Inferential Statistics

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?