If y(t)=int_0^t f(t)dt & the Laplace transform of f(t) is L{f(t)}=int_0^(oo) e^(-st) f(t)dt,then prove that L{y(t)}=(1/s)L{f(t)}

Humberto Campbell

Humberto Campbell

Answered question

2022-11-11

If y ( t ) = 0 t f ( t ) d t & the Laplace transform of f(t) is L { f ( t ) } = 0 e s t f ( t ) d t,then prove that L { y ( t ) } = ( 1 / s ) L { f ( t ) }

Answer & Explanation

Lillianna Salazar

Lillianna Salazar

Beginner2022-11-12Added 22 answers

Let y ( t ) = 0 t f ( x ) d x. Then, we have
L ( y ) ( s ) = 0 0 t f ( x ) d x e s t d t = 0 f ( x ) x e s t d t d x = 1 s 0 f ( x ) e s x d x = 1 s L ( f ) ( s )
as was to be shown!

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