Given Abel's integral equation: f(t)=int_0^t (phi(tau))/((t−tau)^(alpha)) d tau

Jenny Roberson

Jenny Roberson

Answered question

2022-11-03

Given Abel's integral equation:
f ( t ) = 0 t ϕ ( τ ) ( t τ ) α d τ
It is clear that the Laplace transform can be represented as follows:
ϕ ¯ ( s ) = 1 Γ ( 1 α ) s 1 α f ¯ ( s )
I can't get to it.

Answer & Explanation

Justin Blake

Justin Blake

Beginner2022-11-04Added 11 answers

The RHS of the equation is the convolution of ϕ ( t ) and 1 t α and so
F ( s ) = L [ f ( t ) ] = L [ ϕ ( t ) ] L [ 1 t α ] = ϕ ¯ ( s ) 0 e s t t α d t
By taking s = x > 0 and putting τ = x t to obtain
= x ( 1 α ) Γ ( 1 α )
= x ( 1 α ) Γ ( 1 α )
If we continue this we note that:
L [ 1 t α ] = s ( 1 α ) Γ ( 1 α )
Hence:
ϕ ¯ ( s ) = 1 Γ ( 1 α ) s 1 α f ¯ ( s )

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