Suppose, for example, that a decision maker can choose any probabilities p 0 </msu

boloman0z

boloman0z

Answered question

2022-06-21

Suppose, for example, that a decision maker can choose any probabilities p 0 , p 1 , p 2 that he or she wants for specified dollar outcomes
D 0
and that they have a given expected value
p 0 D 0 + p 1 D 1 + p 2 D 2 = k
For example, if D 0 < 0 were the price of a lottery ticket with possible prizes D 1 and D 2 , then k = 0 would define a “fair” lottery, while k < 0 would afford the lottery organizer a profit. We may arbitrarily let the utilities of D 0 and D 2 be u 0 = 0 and u 2 = 1; then the utility of D 1 is u 1 ( 0 , 1 ). For a typical lottery, | D 0 | is quite small as compared to D 1 and D 2 . With k 0, this implies that feasible p 1 and p 2 are small, with p 1 + p 2 well under 0.5, and therefore with p 0 well over 0.5.
Questions:
1. If D 0 is the price of a lottery ticket, how could it possibly be less than zero?
2. Why include the price of a lottery ticket in an EV calculation? The prizes D 1 and D 2 have a probability associated with them, that makes sense when calculating expected value. But the price of a lottery ticket? What does it mean for a ticket price to have a probability "well over 0.5"
3. For k 0, it only makes sense that D 0 must be negative, but again, how could the price of a lottery ticket be negative?

Answer & Explanation

ejigaboo8y

ejigaboo8y

Beginner2022-06-22Added 29 answers

What you're not understanding is the fact that we're calculating your expected winnings. So what your author means is that if you buy a lottery ticket at a price | D 0 | (which is positive), then if you don't win the lottery you'll have earned D 0 (which is negative), your overall wealth decreased by | D 0 |.
So it seems like we're modelling the scenario where a lottery ticket costs | D 0 | and with probability p 1 , I gain some amount money M 1 > 0. In this case, I've paid for the ticket and won M 1 , so my gains have been D 1 := M 1 + D 0 (note again that D 0 is negative). Similarly, with probability p 2 , I gain some greater amount of money M 2 > 0, in which case I'll have gained D 2 := M 2 + D 0 - I've still paid for my ticket.
Thus, with probability p 0 := 1 ( p 1 + p 2 ), I'll have entered the lottery and not won, and thus lost the money that I paid for the ticket. Therefore, my expected winnings are as written above. The important part is to keep in mind which quantity we're actually keeping track of - in this case, it's your wealth after the lottery is over.
Lovellss

Lovellss

Beginner2022-06-23Added 5 answers

The Ds are the payment to the player by the casino. So D 0 < 0 represents the fact that the payment to the player is negative, i.e., the player pays the casino | D 0 |. I think that answers 1 and 3.
Regarding 2 - the probabilities represent the events "not winning", "winning the net amount D 1 and winning the net amount D 2 . So "not winning" has a probability of p 0 in which case the player only plays the lottery ticket.

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