Does sum_(n=1)^infty (ln n)^2/n^2 converge?

Aron Heath

Aron Heath

Answered question

2022-11-17

Does n = 1 ( ln n ) 2 n 2 converge?

Answer & Explanation

apopihvj

apopihvj

Beginner2022-11-18Added 20 answers

There's one more way. Compare it to the integral:
I = 1 ( log x x ) 2 d x
Also note log x x 2 < ( log x x ) 2 < log x x < log 2 x x and the limit of all these sequences is 0 as x . Now integrate I by parts in the following way:
I = 0 1 ( log x x ) 2 d x = log 2 x x | 1 2 1 log x x 2 d x + 2 1 ( log x x ) 2 d x = 2 1 log x x 2 d x + 2 I
so you get
I = 2 1 log x x 2 d x
Again integrate the expression on RHS by parts to get
I = 2 ( 0 + 1 d x x 2 ) = 2
Hence the original sum converges too.
inurbandojoa

inurbandojoa

Beginner2022-11-19Added 11 answers

To prove ln n < C ( ϵ ) n ϵ where C ( ϵ ) depends only on ϵ:
Since e x 1 + x > x, x > ln x
Substitute x ϵ for x. Then x ϵ > ln ( x ϵ ) = ϵ ln x so ln x < x ϵ ϵ
Setting ϵ = 1 m , ln x < m x 1 / m . In particular, for m = 2, ln x < 2 x 1 / 2 .

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