Spivak saves the proof of the intermediate value theorem for his chapter on supremums and infemums. His proof makes clear use of the completeness of reals, but why I struggle to see why it is dependent on completeness and not just continuity.

Jean Farrell

Jean Farrell

Answered question

2022-09-21

Spivak saves the proof of the intermediate value theorem for his chapter on supremums and infemums.
His proof makes clear use of the completeness of reals, but why I struggle to see why it is dependent on completeness and not just continuity.

Answer & Explanation

Claire Larson

Claire Larson

Beginner2022-09-22Added 10 answers

f ( x ) = x 2 2
This function is continuous at every rational number x.
f ( 0 ) = 2 and f ( 2 ) = + 2.
If the intermediate value theorem could be proved using only continuity, then we would conclude there is some rational number x 0 between 0 and 2 for which f ( x 0 ) = 0. But there is none.

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