Convergence of sequence: f(n+1)=f(n)+\frac{f(n)^2}{n(n+1)}

Reese Munoz

Reese Munoz

Answered question

2022-01-21

Convergence of sequence:
f(n+1)=f(n)+f(n)2n(n+1)

Answer & Explanation

Micah May

Micah May

Beginner2022-01-22Added 11 answers

The sequence is monotone, let g(n)=525n, we have f(18)<g(18) and if f(n)<g(n),
f(n+1)<f(n)+25n(n+1)<525n+25n+1=g(n+1), by induction f(n) is bounded above by 5 therefore converge. However I suggest trying to find a better upper bound g(n) for similar purpose so you don't need to calculate 18 terms.
Gwendolyn Meyer

Gwendolyn Meyer

Beginner2022-01-23Added 11 answers

We know that [f(k)]k=1 is monotone increasing. This means that the sequence either diverges to + or converges. In order to determine which option is the case, we do the following trick: First we write
f(k+1)f(k)=f(k)2k(k+1)f(k)f(k+1)k(k+1)
Dividing both sides by f(k)f(k+1) and writing g(k)=1f(k), we have
g(k)g(k+1)1k1k+1 (1)
This is the key inequality for our argument. One the one hand, summing this for k=1,,n1 we get
1g(n)11n1ng(n)
On the other hand, summing (1) for k=n,n+1, and denoting g()=limg(n), we have
g(n)g()1ng(n)g()+1n
When g()=0, these two inequalities become saturated, hence we obtain g(n)=1n and f(n)=n. But this is absqrt, since this does not satisfy our recurrence relation. Therefore g()>0 and
limnf(n)=1g()<
RizerMix

RizerMix

Expert2022-01-27Added 656 answers

Since f(1)=1 and f(n+1)=f(n)+f(n)2n(n+1) (1) we have that f(n) is increasing and inductively we have that 1f(n)n Furthermore, (1) implies that (1f(n+1)1n+1)(1f(n)1n) =(1n1n+1)(1f(n)n(n+1)n(n+1)f(n)+f(n)2) =1n(n+1)1n(n+1)+f(n) =f(n)n(n+1)(n(n+1)+f(n)) f(n)n2(n+1)(n+2) 1n2(n+1)(n+2) Since n=11n2(n+1)(n+2)=π21258 we have 1f(n)1n+k=1n11n2(n+1)(n+2)π21258 Therefore, f(n)242π215 Since f(n) is increasing and bounded above, it converges.

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