How can I calculate the following sum involving binomial terms: \sum_{k=0}^n((n),(k))\frac{(-1)^k}{(k+1)^2}

Jay Mckay

Jay Mckay

Answered question

2022-01-24

How can I calculate the following sum involving binomial terms:
k=0n(nk)(1)k(k+1)2

Answer & Explanation

lirwerwammete9t

lirwerwammete9t

Beginner2022-01-25Added 9 answers

We have
1z0zk=0n(nk)skds=k=0n(nk)zkk+1
so that
0z1t0tk=0n(nk)skdsdt=k=0n(nk)zk+1(k+1)2
Setting z=1 gives an expression for your sum,
k=0n(nk)(1)k(k+1)2=101t0tk=0n(nk)skdsdt
Now, k=0n(nk)sk=(1+s)n, so
k=0n(nk)(1)k(k+1)2=101t0t(1+s)ndsdt
=1n+1101t[(1+t)n+11]dt
=1n+101un+11u1du
=1n+101k=0nukdu
Brenton Pennington

Brenton Pennington

Beginner2022-01-26Added 15 answers

One application of the absorption identity gets one of the factors of k+1 out of the denominator:
k=0n(nk)(1)k(k+1)2=1n+1k=0n(n+1k+1)(1)kk+1
=1n+1k=1n+1(n+1k)(1)k+1k
By using the basic binomial coefficient recursion formula, we can make that happen.
Let f(n)=k=1n(nk)(1)k+1k Then looking at the difference of f(n+1) and f(n) gives us
f(n+1)f(n)=k=1n+1(n+1k)(1)k+1kk=1n(nk)(1)k+1k
=k=0n(nk)(1)kk+1
=1n+1k=0n(n+1k+1)(1)k
=1n+1(1+k=0n+1(n+1k)(1)k+1)
=1n+1
where in the last step we used the fact that the alternating sum of the binomial coefficients is 0.
Thus
f(n+1)=k=0n(f(k+1)f(k))=k=0n1k+1=Hn+1
Therefore,
RizerMix

RizerMix

Expert2022-01-27Added 656 answers

k=0n((n),(k))(1)k(k+1)2 =k=0n((n),(k))(1)k01ln(x)xkdx =01ln(x)k=0n((n),(k))(x)kdx =01ln(x)(1x)ndx =ddμ01xμ(1x)ndx|μ=0 =ddμΓ(μ+1)Γ(n+1)Γ(μ+n+2)|μ=0=Hn+1n+1 Note that Γ(a+μ)=Γ(a)[1+(Ha1γ)μ+O(μ2)] such that =Γ(μ+1)Γ(n+1)Γ(μ+n+2)=n!(n+1)!×[1+[(1γ)(Hn+1γ)]μ+O(μ2)] =1n+1+Hnn+1μ+O(μ2) with H0=0

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?