How to prove the following equality? \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{\prod_{k=1}^m(n+k)}=\frac{1}{(m-1)m!}

Ethen Wong

Ethen Wong

Answered question

2022-01-24

How to prove the following equality?
n=11k=1m(n+k)=1(m1)m!

Answer & Explanation

Deegan Mullen

Deegan Mullen

Beginner2022-01-25Added 12 answers

n=11k=1m(n+k)=n=1n!(n+m)!=1m!n=11(m+nn)
Now
1(m+nn)=m01dxxm1(1x)n
so that the sum in question is equal to, upon reversing sum and integral
m01dxxm1n=1(1x)n=m01dxxm11xx
=m01dx(xm2xm1)
=m(1m11m)
=1m1
Putting this all together,
n=11k=1m(n+k)=1(m1)m!
as was to be shown.
kumewekwah0

kumewekwah0

Beginner2022-01-26Added 14 answers

Note that k=1m(n+k)=(n+m)!n!, then prove by induction the explicit formula for the s-th partial sum
n=1s1k=1m(n+k)=n=1sn!(n+m)!
=1m1(1m!(s+1)!(s+m)!
and take the limit s
RizerMix

RizerMix

Expert2022-01-27Added 656 answers

The partial fraction identity at the top can be shown by induction on m. The case m=1 is trivial. The induction step gives 1(m1)!k=0m1(1)k((m1),(k))1n+k+11n+m+1 =1(m1)! k=0m1(1)k((m1),(k))1mk(1n+k+11n+m+1 The first part of the sum is 1(m1)!k=0m1(1)k((m1),(k))1mk1n+k+1=1m! k=0m1(1)k((m),(k))1n+k+1 The second part is 1n+m+11(m1)!k=0m1(1)k((m1),(k))1mk=1n+m+11m!k=0m1(1)k((m),(k)) =1n+m+11m!(0(1)m) =1n+m+1(1)m1m! Putting these two together completes the induction.

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