neudateaLp

2022-11-24

the equation f(x)′−f(x)=0 holds for the exponential function on the complex plane.Now what i dont understand is this.
"let $f\left(x\right)={a}_{0}+{a}_{1}X+{a}_{2}{X}^{2}........$ f is a polynomial with infinite degree ".Why is that. I dont understand how he came to that conclusion?I mean Why define it that way?.MAybe he could solve the ODE on the real numbers and avoid this "out of nowhere" polynomial or is there a connection?

Shiloh Davenport

Expert