How can I show that the exponential function, a^x, a in R^+−{1} is injective? I want to not use the inverse log function as originally I was trying to come up with algebraic justification of why the log function is well-defined and it looks like I can show that assuming the exponential function a^x is injective. It looks like showing the function is injective is equivalent to showing that a^x=1 implies x=0. Now I am trying to figure out some kind of contradiction if x/=0.
Aleah Avery
Answered question
2022-11-19
How can I show that the exponential function, , is injective? I want to not use the inverse log function as originally I was trying to come up with algebraic justification of why the log function is well-defined and it looks like I can show that assuming the exponential function is injective. It looks like showing the function is injective is equivalent to showing that =1 implies x=0. Now I am trying to figure out some kind of contradiction if .
Answer & Explanation
Samsonitew7b
Beginner2022-11-20Added 15 answers
Well, I guess that your definition of exp involves the ODE
(this is not , but a does not really matter here). Let us assume that y(x)=1,x>1 (x<1 is similar), and assume that for . Then y must be decreasing either near 0 or near x. It is impossible because both derivatives are =a. Then you are done, becausev
is a group homomorphism.
inurbandojoa
Beginner2022-11-21Added 11 answers
We need to solve the following equation to find y:
This leads to two equations:
What this means is that, in general, this function is not injective, but if we assume it maps from , then there is only a single value of n (n=0) such that this equation is equal (with a real value of y). This means that for each (positive) real value of x there is a single real value, y, such that the equation (or function) holds--this makes the function injective.