Let I sub R^(>=0) be an interval and let f:I->R^(>=0) be concave (and smooth enough). Weather the following inequality holds: f(a+b)<=f(a)+f(b). Is this true?

Widersinnby7

Widersinnby7

Answered question

2022-11-07

Let I R 0 be an interval and let f : I R 0 be concave (and smooth enough). Weather the following inequality holds:
f ( a + b ) f ( a ) + f ( b ) .
Is this true?

Answer & Explanation

Kristen Garza

Kristen Garza

Beginner2022-11-08Added 13 answers

It is true with f ( x ) = x 1 / p , 1 p < . To see that, note that we just have to deal with the case b = 1. Then put g ( x ) := x 1 / p + 1 ( 1 + x ) 1 / p and show that this function is non-decreasing.
In the general case, if 0 I and f ( 0 ) = 0 it's true.

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