Explanation how it can be that f ′ ( x ) = g ( x...
Zion Wheeler
Answered question
2022-06-21
Explanation how it can be that but wolfram alpha says ? I've just started learning about antiderivatives/primitive functions/indefinite integrals, and I have the functions
I came to the conclusion that so that and I wanted to check with wolfram alpha, but wolfram says that even though it says . It seems to me that this violates the definition of antiderivative?
Answer & Explanation
scoseBexgofvc
Beginner2022-06-22Added 20 answers
Step 1 The function f(x) is one of the infinite number of antiderivatives of the function g(x) which differ only by a constant. In the case of f(x), that constant, typically denoted as C, is 0. When you integrate g(x), you get a whole set of functions. Not just one function. That set is usually denoted where . Therefore, this means that there are going to be as many functions in that set as there as real numbers - that is, an infinite number. That's why, technically speaking, . The result of the integration process is not a function, but a set of functions. Those are slightly different concepts.
Fletcher Hays
Beginner2022-06-23Added 6 answers
Explanation: The symbol means the set of all antiderivatives of g. Since f is an antiderivative of g , we have