Juan Hewlett

2022-01-13

Proving that $x-{x}^{2}$ is a contraction without mean value theorem

temnimam2

Expert

Sure, its

Louis Page

Expert

Hint: $f\left(x\right)-f\left(y\right)=\left(x-y\right)\left(1-\left(x+y\right)\right)$,
$0\le x+y\le 2$.

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