For any complex polynomial P degree n: sum_{k=0}^{n+1}(-1)^k ((n+1),(k)) P(a+kb)=0 forall a, b in C

Nikolai Decker

Nikolai Decker

Answered question

2022-10-26

Questions on a self-made theorem about polynomials
For any complex polynomial P degree n:
k = 0 n + 1 ( 1 ) k ( n + 1 k ) P ( a + k b ) = 0 a , b C
Basically, if P is quadratic, P ( a ) 3 P ( a + b ) + 3 P ( a + 2 b ) P ( a + 3 b ) = 0 (inputs of P are consecutive terms of any arithmetic sequence). This can be generalized to any other degrees.
- Has this been discovered? If yes, what's the formal name for this phenomenon?
- Is it significant/Are there important consequences of this being true?
- Can this be generalized to non-polynomials?

Answer & Explanation

Davion Fletcher

Davion Fletcher

Beginner2022-10-27Added 9 answers

Step 1
What you wrote is the finite difference operator of order n + 1, acting on P,
k = 0 n + 1 ( 1 ) k ( n + 1 k ) P ( a + k b ) = Δ n + 1 P ( a + k b ) .
Notice that by linearity it suffices for the property to hold for all monomials k m , m n and it is easily explained by the fact that the first order difference of a polynomial is a polynomial of degree one less.
( k + 1 ) m k m = k m + m k m 1 + k m .
Step 2
Illustration ( n = 3):
Δ 4 k m = ( ( 4 m 3 m ) ( 3 m 2 m ) ) ( ( 3 m 2 m ) ( 2 m 1 m ) ) ( ( 3 m 2 m ) ( 2 m 1 m ) ) ( ( 2 4 1 m ) ( 1 4 0 m ) ) = 4 m 4 3 m + 6 2 m 4 1 m + 0 m .
and
1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 2 3 4 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 4 9 16 1 3 5 7 2 2 2 0 0 0
0 1 8 27 64 1 7 19 37 6 12 18 6 6 0
Final remark:
On can show that Δ n + 1 k n + 1 = ( 1 ) n n !, so that for a polynomial of degree n + 1 the sum is
( 1 ) n n ! p n + 1 b n + 1 ,
independently of a.
Christopher Saunders

Christopher Saunders

Beginner2022-10-28Added 6 answers

Step 1
The key point is that finite differences and derivatives commute: D Δ h = Δ h D.
For f C 1 ( R ) you can compute
1 h Δ h [ f ] ( x ) = f ( x + h ) f ( x ) h = 1 h 0 h D [ f ] ( x + x 1 ) d x 1
For f C n ( R ), iterating the above formula, you get
1 h n Δ h n [ f ] ( x ) = 1 h n 1 Δ h n 1 [ f ] ( x + h ) 1 h n 1 Δ h n 1 [ f ] ( x ) h = 1 h 0 h 1 h n 1 D Δ h n 1 [ f ] ( x + x 1 ) d x 1 = 1 h 2 0 h 0 h 1 h n 1 D 2 Δ h n 2 [ f ] ( x + x 1 + x 2 ) d x 1 d x 2 = = 1 h n 0 h 0 h D n [ f ] ( x + x 1 + + x n ) d x 1 d x n .
Step 2
The last integral is a weighted average of D n [ f ] over the segment [ x , x + n h ]. More precisely, let X 1 , , X n U n i f o r m ( 0 , h ) be i.i.d. and S = X 1 + + X n . Then the previous expression can be viewed as
1 h n Δ h n [ f ] ( x ) = E [ D n [ f ] ( S ) ]
The mean value theorem for integrals applies and tells us that there exists x ( x , x + n h ) such that
1 h n Δ h n [ f ] ( x ) = D n [ f ] ( x ) .
Regarding your proposition, it follows trivially from the fact that if P is a polynomial of degree n, then D n + 1 [ P ] = 0 identically, hence also Δ h n + 1 [ P ] = 0.

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?