William Curry
Answered
2021-12-29
Answer & Explanation
Paul Mitchell
Expert
2021-12-30Added 40 answers
SlabydouluS62
Expert
2021-12-31Added 52 answers
Vasquez
Expert
2022-01-09Added 457 answers
The statement makes sense because polynomials have a different greatest common factors. Hence,
In the first polynomial the greatest common factor is
In the second polynomial the greatest common factor is 10x so, we factor it out:
Result:
It makes sence.
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