Show without using the preceding results * that the probability pm(r,n)=n^−1Em(r,n) of finding exactly 𝑚 cells empty satisfies pm(r+1,n)=pm(r,n)(n−m)/n+pm+1(r,n)(m+1)/n (1)

Taylor Barron

Taylor Barron

Answered question

2022-11-20

Show without using the preceding results * that the probability p m ( r , n ) = n 1 E m ( r , n ) of finding exactly 𝑚 cells empty satisfies
p m ( r + 1 , n ) = p m ( r , n ) n m n + p m + 1 ( r , n ) m + 1 n ( 1 )
* The results which I can't use must be
E m ( r , n ) = ( n m ) A ( r , n m ) = ( n m ) ν = 0 n m ( 1 ) ν ( n m ν ) ( n m ν ) r
and by association
A ( r , n + 1 ) = k = 1 r ( r k ) A ( r k , n )
By the way, A ( r , n ) is equal to n ! S ( r , n ) where S ( r , n ) are the Stirling numbers of the second kind.

Answer & Explanation

sliceu4i

sliceu4i

Beginner2022-11-21Added 16 answers

So p m ( r , n ) is the probability of finding m cells out of n empty when you scatter r objects randomly among the bins. Now you are trying to find an expression for m. Think about how you can get there with r + 1 objects. You can either have m cells empty with r objects and put the new one in an occupied bin, or you can have m + 1 cells empty with r objects and put the new one in an unoccupied bin. This should lead you to the equation you want.

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