How can this question be geometric and also negative binomial. In order to join a group Peter needs 9 invitations.The probability that he receives an invitation on any day is 0.8, independent of other days.

Nola Aguilar

Nola Aguilar

Answered question

2022-11-15

Negative binomial distribution vs geometric distributiion
How can this question be geometric and also negative binomial. In order to join a group Peter needs 9 invitations.The probability that he receives an invitation on any day is 0.8, independent of other days.
He joins as soon as he receives his 9 th invitation. Given that he joined on the 14 th day, find the probability that he receives his first invite on the first day.

Answer & Explanation

martinmommy26nv8

martinmommy26nv8

Beginner2022-11-16Added 16 answers

Step 1
How can this question be geometric and also negative binomial.
A negative binomial random variable, X N B ( r , q ), is a count of successes occurring (at rate q) before r failures.
A (zero-based) geometric random variable, Y G e o 0 ( p ), is a count of failures before the first success, with success rate p.
Step 2
Hence: Y N B ( 1 , 1 p ). That is: A geomemtric distribution with parameter p is a negative binomial distribution with parameters 1 , 1 p
Aliyah Thompson

Aliyah Thompson

Beginner2022-11-17Added 3 answers

Step 1
The geometric distribution is a special case of the binomial negative distribution with parameter r = 1.
To see why this is the reason, see how they come to be. The geometric distribution represents the number of tries needed to get a positive result in a binomial setting, while the negative binomial represents the number of tries needed to get an arbitrary number r of successes.
From here we can deduce what I claimed, and also that the negative binomial of parameter r corresponds to the sum of r independent identically distributed random variables with geometric distribution.
Step 2
Let's try to solve your problem! Let X i denote the event 'Peter receives an invitation the ith day'. Then each X i B e r n ( p = 0.8 ), and i = 1 13 X i B i n ( p = 0.8 , r = 13 ) (note that X 1 4 is fixed to be true since Peter is guaranteed to have received an invitation the last day).
Let's use Bayes:
P ( X 1 = 1 | i = 1 13 X i = 8 ) = P ( X i = 1 ) P ( i = 1 13 X i = 8 | X 1 = 1 ) i = 1 13 X i = 8
Note that [ i = 1 13 X i = 8 | X 1 = 1 ] [ i = 2 13 X i = 7 ] B e r n ( p = 0.8 , r = 12 ) = 7
Thus we know the distribution of each term in the Bayes equation, so we can directly substitute:
P ( X 1 = 1 | i = 1 13 X i = 8 ) = 0.8 ( 12 7 ) ( 0.8 ) 7 ( 1 0.8 ) 12 7 ( 13 8 ) ( 0.8 ) 8 ( 1 0.8 ) 13 8 = 8 13
Note this result can be obtained in a more direct way using the following reasoning. The probability of receiving an invitation each day is equal, and we know that from days 1 to 13 he has received 8 invitations. Then the probability of getting an invitation the first day is equal to the number of combinations of 8 days between those 13 including the first between the total number of combinations of 8 days over 13:
P ( X 1 = 1 | i = 1 13 X i = 8 ) = ( 12 7 ) ( 13 8 ) = 8 13 .
So yeah, using the negative binomial or geometric here is not needed, and more complicated than necessary.

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