let f:R->R be a continuous function such that f(0)<=1 and for all real x, f(x)^2−3f(x)+2>=0. Prove that f(x)<=1 for all real x.

perlejatyh8

perlejatyh8

Answered question

2022-11-08

let f : R R be a continuous function such that f ( 0 ) 1 and for all real x, f ( x ) 2 3 f ( x ) + 2 0. Prove that f ( x ) 1 for all real x.
I think you would start by factorising to get ( f ( x ) 2 ) ( f ( x ) 1 ) 0 and then f ( x ) 1 but I'm not really sure where to go from there? I think maybe you can use the intermediate value theorem but I'm not exactly sure how. TIA

Answer & Explanation

Aliya Moore

Aliya Moore

Beginner2022-11-09Added 17 answers

Factorizing is a good start. Suppose now, there were some x with f ( x ) > 1. By the intermediate value theorem due to f ( 0 ) 1, there is some x 0 with 1 < f ( x 0 ) < 2. But then
( f ( x 0 ) 2 ) ( f ( x 0 ) 1 ) < 0
Contradiction.

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