How do I prove that the Bessel function J_0=1/(pi) int_0^(pi) cos(x cos(t))dt using Laplace transforms?

Kenna Stanton

Kenna Stanton

Answered question

2022-11-08

How do I prove that the Bessel function J 0 = 1 π 0 π cos ( x cos ( t ) ) d t using Laplace transforms?

Answer & Explanation

martinmommy26nv8

martinmommy26nv8

Beginner2022-11-09Added 16 answers

L ( J 0 ) = 0 e s x 1 π 0 π cos ( x cos ( t ) ) d t d x = 0 e s x 1 π 0 π 1 2 ( e i x cos t + e i x cos t ) d t d x = 1 2 π 0 0 π ( e i x cos t s x + e i x cos t s x ) d t d x = 1 2 π 0 π 0 ( e i x cos t s x + e i x cos t s x ) d x d t = 1 2 π 0 π e i x cos t s x i cos t s + e i x cos t s x i cos t s | 0 d t = 1 2 π 0 π 1 s i cos t + 1 s i cos t d t = s π 0 π 1 s 2 + cos 2 t d t = s π π s s 2 + 1 = 1 s 2 + 1

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