Sum of Unit Fractions Equal to 1 Has Finitely Many Solutions My book on abstract algebra had a small puzzle in it I was interested in. It asks the reader to prove that sum_(j=1)^(n)(1)/(x_j)= 1 only has finitely many solutions where x_j in NN. My first attempt to proof it was with induction. It's easy to see that for n=1 it only has 1 solution. For the induction step I assume that in the case n=k+1 we have infinitely many solutions, so it follows that sum_(j=1)^(k)(1)/(x_j)=(x_k-1)/(x_k) which implies that sum_(j=1)^(k)(1)/(x_j)=(1)/(x_k) (assuming x_k!=1). This is pretty much as far as I got. I'd really love to have a hint rather than a full solution if possible.

Kasey Reese

Kasey Reese

Answered question

2022-10-20

Sum of Unit Fractions Equal to 1 Has Finitely Many Solutions
My book on abstract algebra had a small puzzle in it I was interested in. It asks the reader to prove that
j = 1 n 1 x j = 1 only has finitely many solutions where x j N
My first attempt to proof it was with induction. It's easy to see that for n = 1 it only has 1 solution. For the induction step I assume that in the case n = k + 1 we have infinitely many solutions, so it follows that j = 1 k 1 x j = x k 1 x k which implies that j = 1 k 1 x j = 1 x k (assuming x k 1).
This is pretty much as far as I got. I'd really love to have a hint rather than a full solution if possible.

Answer & Explanation

pararevisarii

pararevisarii

Beginner2022-10-21Added 9 answers

Hint: First order the x i according to size. Then try all possibilities for x 1 , then x 2 , etc. The constraints that x i x i 1 and that n i + 1 x i 1 j = 1 i 1 x j mean that one only has to try finitely many possibilities for x i at each step.

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