Is it possible to compute the inverse Laplace transform of: (1)/(1-e^(-sa)) where a>0 ?

Iris Vaughn 2022-10-11 Answered
Is it possible to compute the inverse Laplace transform of:
1 1 e s a
where a>0 ?
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Answers (1)

canhaulatlt
Answered 2022-10-12 Author has 17 answers
A possible solution is as follows.
( 1 e s a ) 1 = n = 0 ( e s a ) n
Now, the inverse laplace transform of e n s a is D i r a c ( t a n )
Then we have
n = 0 D i r a c ( t a n )
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