The problem is to show that, given norm(y)_2=lambda^T y,norm(λ)_2 <= 1 and y != 0, we have lambda=(y)/(norm(y)_2).

odcinaknr

odcinaknr

Answered question

2022-10-05

The problem is to show that, given y 2 = λ T y , λ 2 1 and y 0, we have λ = y y 2
My approach is, y 2 = | λ T y | y 2 λ 2 λ 2 1 which combined with λ 2 1 gives that λ 2 = 1. So λ and y are not oppositely aligned, since y 2 0
Also, y 2 = λ T y ( y y 2 λ ) T y = 0. But since we showed that λ and y are not oppositely aligned, this should mean that the only possibility is y y 2 λ = 0 which gives the result.
I feel that there should be a much more straightforward way of seeing the result but can't seem to get there at the moment. Can someone help out?

Answer & Explanation

Conor Daniel

Conor Daniel

Beginner2022-10-06Added 11 answers

You are right, that | | λ | | 2 = 1. With this information it is easy to see that
| | y y 2 λ | | 2 2 = 0.
To this end use: | | a | | 2 2 = ( a | a ), where ( | ) denotes the usual inner product.
samuelaplc

samuelaplc

Beginner2022-10-07Added 2 answers

A different approach, don't know if it's more straightforward, but maybe a bit more intuitive:
Take λ λ and complete it to an orthonormal basis { λ λ , e 2 , . . . , e n } . Then
y = λ , y λ λ 2 + i e i , y e i = y λ 2 λ + i e i , y e i .
Taking the norm of y and using λ < 1 , we see e i , y = 0 for i = 2 , . . . , n ; and also λ = 1. This yields
y = y λ .

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?