If f(x)=sum_(n=0)^(oo) a_n x^n converges for all x >= 0, show that L{f}(s)=sum_(n=0)^(oo) (a_n n!)/(s^(n+1))

mikioneliir

mikioneliir

Answered question

2022-09-24

If f ( x ) = n = 0 a n x n converges for all x 0, show that L { f } ( s ) = n = 0 a n n ! s n + 1

Answer & Explanation

wayiswa8i

wayiswa8i

Beginner2022-09-25Added 6 answers

Assuming that s > a we have 0 | n a n x n e s x | d x n K a n x n / ( n ! ) e s x = K 0 e s ( x a ) d x < . This allows us to interchange the infinite sum and the integral. Hence the Laplace transform is equal to a n x n 0 e s x x n d x. I leave it to you to compute the last integral using integration by parts.

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