If I use Inverse Laplace transformation using the table do I get cos(t)−sin(t). can I go back to the t domain with the x domain normally ?

memLosycecyjz

memLosycecyjz

Answered question

2022-09-22

Let
F ( s ) = L { f ( t ) }
After a Laplace transform of f(t) the expression is :
F ( s ) = 2 s 4 s 2 2 s + 2
which equals to
F ( s ) = 2 ( s 1 ( s 1 ) 2 + 1 1 ( s 1 ) 2 + 1 )
let
x = s 1
Therefore
F ( x ) = x x 2 + 1 1 x 2 + 1
My question is, if I use Inverse Laplace transformation using the table do I get cos ( t ) sin ( t ). Can I go back to the t domain with the x domain normally ?

Answer & Explanation

Phoenix Morse

Phoenix Morse

Beginner2022-09-23Added 10 answers

L 1 { F ( s α ) } = e α t L 1 { F ( s ) }
L 1 { F ( s 1 ) } = e t L 1 { F ( s ) }
L 1 { 2 ( s 1 ( s 1 ) 2 + 1 1 ( s 1 ) 2 + 1 ) } = 2 e t ( cos t sin t ) .
Where does the "frequency shift" property of the Laplace transform come from?:
L { e α t f ( t ) } = 0 e s t e α t f ( t ) d t = 0 e ( s α ) t f ( t ) d t = F ( s α ) .
batejavizb

batejavizb

Beginner2022-09-24Added 4 answers

F ( s ) = 2 ( s 1 ( s 1 ) 2 + 1 1 ( s 1 ) 2 + 1 )
If you change the variable and substitute x=s−1 you have to substitute s on both sides:
F ( x + 1 ) = 2 ( x x 2 + 1 1 x 2 + 1 )
L 1 { F ( x + 1 ) } = 2 L 1 { ( x x 2 + 1 1 x 2 + 1 ) }
e t f ( t ) = 2 ( cos ( t ) sin ( t ) )
Therefore:
f ( t ) = 2 e t ( cos ( t ) sin ( t ) )
So this line is not correct. Because your substitution on LHS is not correct s=x. When on RHS you substitute s=x−1.
F ( s ) = 2 ( s 1 ( s 1 ) 2 + 1 1 ( s 1 ) 2 + 1 )
F ( x ) x = s = x x 2 + 1 1 x 2 + 1 x = s 1
It should be:
F ( x + 1 ) x = s 1 = x x 2 + 1 1 x 2 + 1 x = s 1

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