Supposing n¡ (the inverted spanish exclamation mark - as opposed to n!) uses sequential divisions, is it always true that ? Example: For n = 7,
. If you multiply this number by 5040 (=7!) you get 49.
I've read the directions in the help center and could not understand why it is off topic. It is like asking about the relation between and . In fact, I could not determine if this kind of question is on-topic either. And I think there is not a sister-site that would accept such kind of questions (I checked all of them). Anyways, my question has been answered. I was lazy when I failed to do some calculations to find the answer myself. This was my very first time here. I've learned something. Thank you.