Why int_0^t f(u) H(t-u-1)du where H is the Heaviside function, is equal to 0 for t<1 and int_0^(t-1) f(u)du for t>1?

tuzkutimonq4

tuzkutimonq4

Answered question

2022-09-11

Why 0 t f ( u ) H ( t u 1 ) d u where H is the Heaviside function, is equal to 0 for t<1 and 0 t 1 f ( u ) d u for t>1. I know of course that H(x) is generally zero for x<0 and 1 for x>0 but I don't see what happened here.

Answer & Explanation

Everett Mclaughlin

Everett Mclaughlin

Beginner2022-09-12Added 16 answers

If t < 1 then t u 1 < 0 for all u between 0 and t so H ( t u 1 ) = 0 for all u and hence the integral is 0.
If t > 1 then H ( t u 1 ) = 0 for u > t 1 and H ( t u 1 ) = 1 for u < t 1 so the integral is effectively from 0 to t 1
Malik Turner

Malik Turner

Beginner2022-09-13Added 2 answers

Let's put the question in a form where H(x) is considered explictly without compounding it with the linear map u t u 1. Consider the convolution integral and apply the change of variable t u 1 y: then
0 t f ( u ) H ( t u 1 ) d u = 1 t 1 f ( t y 1 ) H ( y ) d y = 1 t 1 f ( t y 1 ) H ( y ) d y = { 0 t 1 0 t 1 f ( t y 1 ) d y t > 1 = { 0 t 1 0 t 1 f ( u ) d u t > 1

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