Let z=z(x,y) be defined implicitly by F(x,y,z(x,y))=0, where F is a given function of three variables. Prove that if z(x,y) and F are differentiable, then (dz)/(dx)=−((dF)/(dx))/((dF)/(dz)) if dF/dz!=0

Memphis Khan

Memphis Khan

Open question

2022-08-19

Let z = z ( x , y ) be defined implicitly by F ( x , y , z ( x , y ) ) = 0, where F is a given function of three variables.
Prove that if z ( x , y ) and F are differentiable, then
d z d x = d F d x d F d z
if d F / d z 0
I am kind of confused with z = z ( x , y ). Should I differentiate d z/ d x and d z/ d y, but there's nothing inside x and y so what should I differentiate d x and d y with then? I've been told that this is something related to implicit differentiation. In some other examples, they do use differentiate F i.e. d F but in most examples, I only see that they are differentiating the variables inside it.

Answer & Explanation

g5riem7z

g5riem7z

Beginner2022-08-20Added 12 answers

Consider the function φ : x F ( x , y , z ( x , y ) ). We have :
( ) φ ( x ) = 0
Differentiate (using the chain rule) this equality with respect to x. You will get:
φ ( x ) = F x ( x , y , z ( x , y ) ) + z x ( x , y ) F z ( x , y , z ( x , y ) ) = 0.
As a consequence, if F z ( x , y , z ( x , y ) ) 0 , we have :
z x ( x , y ) = F x ( x , y , z ( x , y ) ) F z ( x , y , z ( x , y ) ) .

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