Can we prove not R(x)⟹ notR(y) by proving notnotR(y)⟹notnotR(x)? Can we also prove that by proving R(y)⟹R(x)?

Cheyanne Jefferson

Cheyanne Jefferson

Open question

2022-08-16

Can we prove ¬ R ( x ) ¬ R ( y ) by proving ¬ ¬ R ( y ) ¬ ¬ R ( x )?
Can we also prove that by proving R ( y ) R ( x )?

Answer & Explanation

Raelynn Johnson

Raelynn Johnson

Beginner2022-08-17Added 13 answers

Yes we can, this is called proof by contraposition.

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