Explain how and why the cancellation of $6$’s in $\frac{16}{64}$ to get $\frac{1}{4}$ is a fallacious statement.

Based on what we know from elementary and middle school teachers, most of us know that 16/64 correctly equals 1/4 because 16/64 is simplified with a common divisibility of 16. However, there is another way to prove that 16/64 equals 1/4 without dividing the numerator and denominator by 16. Who can explain how and why that method leads to a fallacious statement?

Based on what we know from elementary and middle school teachers, most of us know that 16/64 correctly equals 1/4 because 16/64 is simplified with a common divisibility of 16. However, there is another way to prove that 16/64 equals 1/4 without dividing the numerator and denominator by 16. Who can explain how and why that method leads to a fallacious statement?