Let f:RR^n to RR^n be a map where norm(f(a)−f(b))=norm(a−b) and f(0)=0, prove a*b=f(a)*f(b).

Avery Stewart

Avery Stewart

Answered question

2022-07-16

Let f : R n R n be a map where f ( a ) f ( b ) = a b and f(0)=0, prove a · b = f ( a ) · f ( b )
Obviously this is a linear transformation, but how do we go about proving this statement?

Answer & Explanation

Marisa Colon

Marisa Colon

Beginner2022-07-17Added 18 answers

First, it is obvious that f ( x ) = x for all x R n since f(0)=0.
Now, for all a and b R n ,
∥f(a)−f(b)∥2=∥a−b∥2.
It follows that
f ( a ) 2 + f ( b ) 2 2 f ( a ) f ( b ) = a 2 + b 2 2 a b .
Since f ( a ) = a and f ( b ) = b , we can deduce that
a b = f ( a ) f ( b ) .

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