Ethen Frey
2022-07-19
Answered

Express Newton’s second law of motion for rotating bodies. What can you say about the angular velocity and angular momentum of a rotating nonrigid body of constant mass if the net torque acting on it is zero?

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polishxcore5z

Answered 2022-07-20
Author has **14** answers

Newton’s second law of motion for rotating bodies states that the rate of change of angular momentum of body is equal to total torque acting on the body.

When net torque on the body is zero then the angular moment of the body remains constant. This is also known as the conservation of momentum.

The variation of angular velocity $(\omega )$ is shown as,

$I\omega $ = constant

where

I = moment of inertia

$\omega $ = angular velocity

When net torque on the body is zero then the angular moment of the body remains constant. This is also known as the conservation of momentum.

The variation of angular velocity $(\omega )$ is shown as,

$I\omega $ = constant

where

I = moment of inertia

$\omega $ = angular velocity

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I have this expression for the gravitational force between 2 masses when the gr term is added:

$F=-\frac{GMm}{{r}^{2}}+\frac{4{G}^{2}mM(M+m)}{{r}^{4}{c}^{2}}$

which I got from the internet since I haven't bee able to find a similar expression in any book. But i'm not sure if it's right or needs fixing.

Is the second term in the force correct?

$F=-\frac{GMm}{{r}^{2}}+\frac{4{G}^{2}mM(M+m)}{{r}^{4}{c}^{2}}$

which I got from the internet since I haven't bee able to find a similar expression in any book. But i'm not sure if it's right or needs fixing.

Is the second term in the force correct?

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Why acceleration due to gravity is not reliably defined?

In Sean Carroll's Spacetime Geometry, there is the following line on Page No.50 in 2014th edition:

"The acceleration of a charged particle in an electromagnetic field is uniquely defined with respect to inertial frames.The EEP,on the other hand,implies that gravity is inescapable- there is no such thing as a "gravitationally neutral object" with respect to which we can measure the acceleration due to gravity. It follows that the acceleration due to gravity is not something that can be reliably defined,and therefore is of little use"

But, we do measure acceleration due to gravity of earth and moon. So why acceleration due to gravity is not reliably defined? Does this mean we cannot measure the true value of acceleration due to gravity of any massive object?

In Sean Carroll's Spacetime Geometry, there is the following line on Page No.50 in 2014th edition:

"The acceleration of a charged particle in an electromagnetic field is uniquely defined with respect to inertial frames.The EEP,on the other hand,implies that gravity is inescapable- there is no such thing as a "gravitationally neutral object" with respect to which we can measure the acceleration due to gravity. It follows that the acceleration due to gravity is not something that can be reliably defined,and therefore is of little use"

But, we do measure acceleration due to gravity of earth and moon. So why acceleration due to gravity is not reliably defined? Does this mean we cannot measure the true value of acceleration due to gravity of any massive object?

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