I have a small question: Can one state that f ( x ) = 1 x </mfrac

I have a small question:
Can one state that
$f\left(x\right)=\frac{1}{x}$
is a rational function because it is the quotient between a polynomial with degree 0 and a polynomial with degree 1?
Thanks!
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alomjabpdl0
Yes, that is true.
The rational functions is the field of fractions of the ring of polynomials. $x$ is a polynomial, so ${x}^{-1}$ is in the field of fractions.