Statement For every $n>1$ there is always at least one prime $p$ such that $n<p<2n$.

I am curious to know that if I replace that $2n$ by $2n-\u03f5$, ($\u03f5>0$) then what is the $inf(\u03f5)$ so that the inequality still holds, meaning there is always a prime between $n$ and $2n-\u03f5$

I am curious to know that if I replace that $2n$ by $2n-\u03f5$, ($\u03f5>0$) then what is the $inf(\u03f5)$ so that the inequality still holds, meaning there is always a prime between $n$ and $2n-\u03f5$