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Villaretq0

Villaretq0

Answered question

2022-06-25

Prove that for all a>0: 0 π / 2 e a cos x cos ( a sin x ) d x = π 2 0 a sin x x d x

Answer & Explanation

hofyonlines5

hofyonlines5

Beginner2022-06-26Added 12 answers

Hint. One may write, for a>0,
0 π / 2 e a cos x cos ( a sin x ) d x = 0 π / 2 e a e i x d x = π 2 + n = 1 ( 1 ) n a n n ! 0 π / 2 cos ( n x ) d x = π 2 + n = 0 ( 1 ) n a n n ! sin ( n π / 2 ) n = π 2 p = 0 ( 1 ) p ( 2 p + 1 ) ! a 2 p + 1 ( 2 p + 1 ) = π 2 0 a sin x x d x
as announced.

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