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misurrosne

misurrosne

Answered question

2022-06-17

How do you evaluate: 0 log x e x + e x + 1   d x

Answer & Explanation

Eleanor Luna

Eleanor Luna

Beginner2022-06-18Added 19 answers

I = 0 log x e x + e x + 1   d x = 1 2 0 ln ( x ) cosh x + 1 2 d x
Consider the "discrete" Laplace transform
k = 1 e k t sin ( k z ) = 1 2 sin z cosh t cos z t > 0
If we put z = 2 π 3
k = 1 e k t sin ( 2 π k 3 ) = 1 2 3 2 cosh t + 1 2
Therefore
I = 2 3 0 1 2 3 2 cosh x + 1 2 ln ( x ) d x = 2 3 0 k = 1 e k x sin ( 2 π k 3 ) ln ( x ) d x = 2 3 k = 1 sin ( 2 π k 3 ) 0 e k x ln ( x ) d x
This last integral is the Laplace transform of the ln ( x ) function
L { ln ( x ) } = 0 e s t ln ( t ) d t = ln ( s ) + γ s ( s ) > 0
where γ is the Euler constant.
Hence
I = 2 3 k = 1 sin ( 2 π k 3 ) 0 e k x ln ( x ) d x = 2 3 k = 1 sin ( 2 π k 3 ) ( ln ( k ) + γ ) k = 2 3 k = 1 sin ( 2 π k 3 ) ln ( k ) k S 1 2 γ 3 k = 1 sin ( 2 π k 3 ) k S 2
Recall the Kummer's Fourier series for the log-gamma function:
ln Γ ( t ) = 1 2 ln ( π sin ( π t ) ) + ( γ + ln ( 2 π ) ) ( 1 2 t ) + 1 π k = 1 sin ( 2 π k t ) ln ( k ) k
If we put t = 1 3
S 1 = k = 1 sin ( 2 π k 3 ) ln ( k ) k = π ln Γ ( 1 3 ) π 2 ln ( 2 π 3 ) π ln ( 2 π ) 6 γ π 6
For S 2 take the principal branch of the ln ( z ) function
S 2 = k = 1 sin ( 2 π k 3 ) k = ( k = 1 e 2 π i k 3 k ) = ( ln ( 1 e 2 π i 3 ) ) = ( ln ( 3 ) 2 + i π 6 ) = π 6
Therefore
I = 2 3 S 1 2 γ 3 S 2 = 2 π 3 ln Γ ( 1 3 ) + π 3 ln ( 2 π 3 ) + π 3 3 ln ( 2 π )
Therefore, we can conclude
0 log x e x + e x + 1   d x = π 3 ln ( 2 π 3 ) + π 3 3 ln ( 2 π ) 2 π 3 ln Γ ( 1 3 )

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