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taghdh9

taghdh9

Answered question

2022-06-14

Proving i = 1 n i sin i x = sin ( ( n + 1 ) x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 ( n + 1 ) cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 by induction

Answer & Explanation

arhaitategr

arhaitategr

Beginner2022-06-15Added 13 answers

Base case n = 1, we need to prove:
sin x = sin ( 2 x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 2 cos ( 3 x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 .
We have
2 cos ( 3 x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 = 2 cos ( 3 x 2 ) sin x 2 2 sin 2 x 2 = sin 2 x sin x 2 sin 2 x 2 .
So we have
R H S = sin ( 2 x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 sin 2 x sin x 2 sin 2 x 2 = 2 sin x sin 2 x 2 ( 1 cos x ) = 2 sin x 2 sin x cos x 2 ( 1 cos x ) = sin x = L H S .
Induction step, we need to prove:
n sin n x = sin ( ( n + 1 ) x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 ( n + 1 ) cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 sin ( ( n ) x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 + ( n ) cos ( ( 2 n 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 = sin ( ( n + 1 ) x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 sin ( ( n ) x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 + n ( cos ( ( 2 n 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 ) .
We know that
sin ( ( n + 1 ) x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 sin ( ( n ) x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 = sin ( ( n + 1 ) x ) sin ( n x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 = 2 sin x 2 cos 2 n + 1 2 x 4 sin 2 x 2 cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 = cos 2 n + 1 2 x 2 sin x 2 cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 = 0.
Also we have
cos ( ( 2 n 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 = cos ( ( 2 n 1 ) x 2 ) cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 = 2 sin n x sin x 2 2 sin x 2 = sin n x .
Therefore, we have
R H S = sin ( ( n + 1 ) x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 sin ( ( n ) x ) 4 sin 2 x 2 cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 + n ( cos ( ( 2 n 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 cos ( ( 2 n + 1 ) x 2 ) 2 sin x 2 ) = 0 + n sin n x = n sin n x = L H S .
So, we are done.

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