A disease effects 1/1000 newborns and shortly after birth a baby is screened for this disease using

vrotterigzl

vrotterigzl

Answered question

2022-06-15

A disease effects 1/1000 newborns and shortly after birth a baby is screened for this disease using a cheap test that has a 2% false positive rate (the test has no false negatives). If the baby tests positive, what is the chance it has the disease?
I've got P ( disease | positive ) = P ( d p ) P ( p ) = ( 1 / 1000 ) ( 1 / 1000 + 2 / 100 999 / 1000 ) = 1 ( 20 + 49 / 50 )
Is this right?

Answer & Explanation

massetereqe

massetereqe

Beginner2022-06-16Added 21 answers

Yes, your answer is correct, but be careful.
The reasoning above is correct and works nicely because the false negative rate is 0, so you get that P ( d p ) = P ( d ) = 1 1000 . Otherwise, you would need to use Bayes' Formula:
P ( d | p ) = P ( p | d ) P ( d ) P ( p )
Davion Harding

Davion Harding

Beginner2022-06-17Added 4 answers

This is correct. Alternatively, you could have used Bayes's theorem:
P ( sick | pos ) = P ( pos | sick ) × P ( sick ) P ( pos | sick ) × P ( sick ) + P ( pos | healthy ) × P ( healthy ) .
Now we know that P ( sick ) = 1 / 1000 and P ( healthy ) = 999 / 1000. Also, P ( pos | sick ) = 1 (since there are no false negatives: whoever is sick will test positive) and P ( pos | healthy ) = 2 / 100 (the rate of false positives).

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