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Dale Tate

Dale Tate

Answered question

2022-06-16

Given that k = 1 μ 0 ( S n k ) < μ ( A ) + ϵ 2 n , how do we justify the non-strict inequality k = 1 μ 0 ( S n k ) n = 1 μ ( A n ) + ϵ? Is there anything other to this than if a < b, then necessarily a b?

Answer & Explanation

boomzwamhc

boomzwamhc

Beginner2022-06-17Added 17 answers

Though they assume that μ ( A n ) < for each n it is necessary that the final sums are finite. If a n = 1 for all n and b n = 2 for all n then a n < b n but a n = b n .
Yahir Tucker

Yahir Tucker

Beginner2022-06-18Added 8 answers

If 0 a n < b n , then n a n n b n .
Consider a n = k μ 0 ( S n k ) and b n = μ ( A n ) + ϵ 2 n .

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