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Celia Lucas

Celia Lucas

Answered question

2022-06-14

Given a probability space ( Ω , F , P ) and a random variable X defined on it, s.t. X 0, I want to show that the mapping
( ω , t ) 1 { X ( ω ) t }
is measurable on the measure space ( Ω × [ 0 , ) , F × B ( [ 0 , ) ) , P λ ), for λ denoting the Lebesgue measure.

My thoughts were to simply use the definition and look at the preimages of this mapping. One would then have, e.g.
1 { X ( ω ) t } 1 ( { 0 } ) = { ( ω , t ) : X ( ω ) < t } = { ( ω , t ) : ω X 1 ( [ 0 , t ) ) } .
Since X is a random variable, it is measurable, so X 1 ( [ 0 , t ) ) F . However, I cannot see at the moment why { ( ω , t ) : ω X 1 ( [ 0 , t ) ) } belongs to the product σ-algebra, since one coordinate depends on the other. I'm grateful for any hints.

Answer & Explanation

Ryan Fitzgerald

Ryan Fitzgerald

Beginner2022-06-15Added 17 answers

If a < b then there exists q Q such that a < r < b. Thus
{ ( ω , t ) : X ( ω ) < t } = r Q { ( ω , t ) : X ( ω ) < r < t }
where
{ ( ω , t ) : X ( ω ) < r < t } = { ( ω , t ) : X ( ω ) < r } { ( ω , t ) : r < t }
Futher
{ ( ω , t ) : X ( ω ) < r } = { X 1 ( ( , r ) ) } × [ 0 , ) F × B ( [ 0 , ) )
{ ( ω , t ) : r < t } = Ω × ( r , + ) F × B ( [ 0 , ) )
q.e.d.

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