Let f be a continuously differentiable function on [ a , b ] with f (

Leland Morrow

Leland Morrow

Answered question

2022-06-13

Let f be a continuously differentiable function on [ a , b ] with f ( a ) = f ( b ) and f ( a ) = f ( b ). Then, do there exist x 1 , x 2 ( a , b ) such that f ( x 1 ) = f ( x 2 ) for x 1 x 2 ?

I think the answer is yes by intermediate value theorem, but am not getting the sufficient rigour to prove it. Any hints. Thanks beforehand.

Answer & Explanation

rioolpijpgp

rioolpijpgp

Beginner2022-06-14Added 19 answers

By the mean value theorem, there exists c ( a , b ) s.t.:
0 = f ( b ) f ( a ) b a = f ( c ) .
Knowing that f is continuous, by IVT, there exists x 1 ( a , c ) such that f ( x 1 ) = f ( a ) 2 . By the same reasonning, there exists x 2 ( c , b ) such that f ( x 2 ) = f ( b ) 2 .

Since f ( a ) = f ( b ), f ( x 1 ) = f ( x 2 ) and x 1 x 2 since they belong to disjoints intervals.

Note that we could have taken any value between f ( a ) and 0. Choosing f ( a ) 2 and f ( b ) 2 was just for convenience.

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