Say we have a sequence of random variables ( X n </msub> ) with mean &#x03BC;<!

Poftethef9t

Poftethef9t

Answered question

2022-06-12

Say we have a sequence of random variables ( X n ) with mean μ n and variance σ n 2 , that converges in probability towards a random variable X. Can we reason that mean and variance sequences are bounded? Do we need some other assumptions, for example, E ( | X | ) < , or perhaps if we assume that each X n is normal? Thank you in advance.

Answer & Explanation

Ryan Fitzgerald

Ryan Fitzgerald

Beginner2022-06-13Added 17 answers

Let X be a non-negative r.v. with infinite expectation. Let X n = X I { X n } Then X n X a.s., hence also in probability, but E X n .
If X n 's are normally distributed then ( μ n ) and ( σ n ) are convergent, hence bounded. [An easy way of proving this is to use characteristic functions: E i μ n t e t 2 σ n 2 E e i t X and E e i t X 0 if t is positive and sufficiently close to 0 so we can take absolute values and then logarithms to finish].
dourtuntellorvl

dourtuntellorvl

Beginner2022-06-14Added 7 answers

thank you

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