Let m , n &#x2265;<!-- ≥ --> 0 be two integers. Prove that <munderover> &#x2211;

amuguescaet3jf

amuguescaet3jf

Answered question

2022-06-03

Let m , n 0 be two integers. Prove that
k = m n ( 1 ) k m ( k m ) ( n k ) = δ m n
where δ m n defined by δ m n = { 1 , if  m = n ; 0 , if  m n

Answer & Explanation

duhovitozywpv

duhovitozywpv

Beginner2022-06-04Added 3 answers

This follows easily from the Multinomial Theorem:
1 = 1 n = ( 1 x + x ) n
= a + b + c = n ( n a , b , c ) 1 a ( x ) b x c
= m = 0 n k = m n ( n m , k m , n k ) 1 m ( x ) k m x n k
= m = 0 n [ k = m n ( 1 ) k m ( k m ) ( n k ) ] x n m
Comparing coefficients now gives the result immediately.
Kaitlyn Higgins

Kaitlyn Higgins

Beginner2022-06-05Added 1 answers

Here's another way to look at Aryabhata's proof: the sum counts all the partitions of [ n ] into three sets A , B , C satisfying | C | = m, weighted according to ( 1 ) | A | . The identity just says that if n m, the number of partitions with | A | even is the same as those with | A | odd.
The latter fact is proved by the following sign-changing involution: pick the first element which is not in C (there must be one since n m), and flip it from A to B or vice versa.

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