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Sturmboot0ae2a

Sturmboot0ae2a

Answered question

2022-06-03

For a filtration F 0 F t F . We know that if X is F 0 -measurable, then X is also F t -measurable for t 0.
I have a question about the martingale X t (which F t measurable) is that given a stopping time T,
why 1 T = X is F T -measurable?
It is clear that 1 T = is F T -measurable. But because X is F -measurable. How can we say X is also F T -measurable?

Answer & Explanation

szabadotttt3dg

szabadotttt3dg

Beginner2022-06-04Added 4 answers

X does not need to be F T measurable, but 1 T = X is. We can show this directly from the definition:
We want to show { 1 T = X B } F T for any Borel set B. By the definition of F T this means we must show { 1 T = X B } { T t } F t for all t > 0. On the event { T t }, 1 T = X = 0, so
{ 1 T = X B } { T t } = { T t }
if 0 B and
{ 1 T = X B } { T t } =
if 0 B. In either case, { 1 T = X B } { T t } F t , so 1 T = X is F T measurable.

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