I know that the above limit is 1 from Wolfram but I had no proper way to prove. I attempted a proof

ropij5ssas

ropij5ssas

Answered question

2022-06-04

I know that the above limit is 1 from Wolfram but I had no proper way to prove. I attempted a proof and it is as follows:
lim n ( 1 + 1 2 + 1 3 + + 1 n log n ) = 0 1 1 n d n lim n log n .

Answer & Explanation

Konner Sloan

Konner Sloan

Beginner2022-06-05Added 3 answers

Your statement
lim n ( 1 + 1 2 + 1 3 + + 1 n log n ) = 0 1 1 n d n lim n log n
makes absolutely no sense. The numerator on the RHS
0 1 1 n d n
is a fixed constant. Moreover, your reuse of n as the variable of integration is inappropriate. Finally, the distribution of the limit into the numerator and denominator is also incorrect; e.g.,
lim x 0 sin x x lim x 0 sin x lim x 0 x = 0 0 .
Instead, recall that for all x 1
x 1 < x x ,
so that
1 x < 1 x 1 x 1 .
Then integrating this expression from x = k to x = k + 1 yields
log k + 1 k = x = k k + 1 1 x d x < x = k k + 1 1 x d x x = k k + 1 1 x 1 d x = log k k 1 .
But the middle integral is simply 1 / k, since for all x [ k , k + 1 ). Therefore, we have established
log ( k + 1 ) log k < 1 k log k log ( k 1 ) ,
for positive integers k > 1, and for k = 1, obviously 1 / k 1. Now summing from k = 1 to n and observing the telescoping, we get
log n log ( n + 1 ) k = 1 n 1 k 1 + log n .
This allows us to obtain a sufficiently tight bound by which the limit may be established through the squeeze theorem:
1 k = 1 n 1 k log n 1 log n + 1.

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